Welcome to FreshNotees, your academic journey companion. We are out again today with a fresh and thoroughly researched update, and this one is for every serious candidate who has sat the JAMB examination and chosen the University of Calabar as their institution of first choice. Congratulations on crossing that first hurdle. Now, the real test begins. The UNICAL Post UTME screening is where the university takes a closer, independent look at who truly belongs in its lecture halls, and English Language is one of the core areas where candidates either distinguish themselves or fall short. This guide covers the nature of the English questions you will face, real practice questions drawn from past patterns, and the preparation strategy that actually works.
Understanding the UNICAL Post UTME Structure
The University of Calabar, one of Nigeria's federal universities located in Calabar, Cross River State, conducts its Post UTME screening as a Computer-Based Test (CBT). The format has remained relatively consistent across recent admission cycles, and understanding how it is structured gives you a practical edge before you even begin reading.
The screening typically consists of 40 to 50 objective questions drawn from your JAMB subject combination. Each question carries equal weight, and the total score from the Post UTME is combined with your JAMB score to produce an aggregate score, which the university uses to determine admission. The standard aggregate formula at UNICAL assigns a percentage weight to both scores, making your Post UTME performance far more significant than many candidates assume.
For candidates offering English Language as part of their JAMB combination, or for those applying to courses where English forms part of the general aptitude testing, the English component typically draws from comprehension, lexis and structure, vocabulary, and in some past cycles, elements of oral English. The exam does not test creative writing or essay composition at the screening stage, so your preparation must be focused entirely on the objective question formats.
Duration is approximately 60 minutes. That averages to slightly over one minute per question, which means pacing matters. Candidates who practise under timed conditions consistently outperform those who only read.
Why English Language Matters in the UNICAL Screening
English Language is not simply a subject at this level. It is the medium through which you will interpret every other question on the paper. A candidate sitting for a Combined Arts or Social Sciences programme will encounter questions in Government, Economics, or Literature, and their ability to read, parse, and respond quickly depends directly on their command of English.
For candidates specifically applying to courses like English and Literary Studies, Mass Communication, Law, Education, or any faculty where language skills carry curricular weight, a strong English performance can push an otherwise borderline aggregate into a secure admission range.
There is also a practical dimension that exam coaches rarely discuss: the comprehension passage is often the most time-consuming section of the English paper. Candidates who have not trained themselves to read efficiently under pressure frequently run out of time during that section, which cascades into careless answers on the questions they do eventually reach.
Key English Topics Tested in UNICAL Post UTME
Comprehension Passages
UNICAL examiners have consistently used comprehension passages that draw from formal, semi-academic, or editorial text styles. The passages are typically two to four paragraphs in length, and four to six questions follow each passage. These questions test three distinct skills: literal retrieval, inferential reasoning, and vocabulary in context.
Literal retrieval questions ask you to identify information that is directly stated in the passage. These are the easiest marks on the paper, and no candidate should lose them. Inferential questions require you to draw a conclusion that the passage implies but does not directly state. Vocabulary-in-context questions present a word from the passage and ask which answer choice most closely captures its meaning as used in that specific sentence, not necessarily its most common dictionary definition.
The mistake most candidates make is treating all three question types the same way. They attempt them at the same speed and with the same approach. Slower, deliberate reading for inferential questions and careful attention to the surrounding sentence for vocabulary questions are non-negotiable habits.
Lexis and Structure
This section tests knowledge of English grammar at a functional level. Expect questions on subject-verb agreement, correct use of tenses, punctuation, sentence construction, and the correct use of prepositions, conjunctions, and articles. Questions are framed in one of two ways: either by presenting a sentence with an underlined portion and asking which option best replaces it, or by presenting a grammatically flawed sentence and asking you to identify the error.
Vocabulary in Context
Standalone vocabulary questions, separate from comprehension, test your knowledge of synonyms, antonyms, phrasal verbs, idiomatic expressions, and word formation. UNICAL has historically drawn from vocabulary sets that appear in WAEC and JAMB syllabi, so any candidate who has practised consistently with those resources will recognise the register of these questions immediately.
Oral English and Phonetics
In cycles where Oral English appears, candidates are typically asked to identify the word in a group that does not share the same vowel sound, to identify the correctly stressed word in a sentence, or to select the phonetically transcribed version of a given word. This section trips up many candidates because it requires a slightly different kind of preparation, one that involves listening and pronunciation practice rather than reading alone.
Summary Writing Principles
While summary writing as a written task does not appear in the objective CBT format, the ability to identify the main idea of a passage, which is a summary skill, appears in comprehension questions. Candidates who have practised summary writing for WAEC will find these questions noticeably more manageable.
UNICAL English Post UTME Past Questions and Answers (Practice Sets)
The questions below are compiled from verified past question patterns and typologically similar questions drawn from the UNICAL examination style. Study each question carefully before checking the answers and explanations that follow.
Set One: Comprehension Practice
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.
The relationship between a nation and its language is rarely straightforward. Language does not simply describe a people's reality; it shapes it. When colonial administrations imposed foreign languages on indigenous populations, they were not merely changing the medium of communication. They were restructuring how those populations organised knowledge, assigned social status, and interpreted their own histories. The displacement of indigenous languages did not happen overnight, nor did it happen without resistance. Communities found ways to preserve meaning, rhythm, and identity within the very language imposed upon them, bending it until it carried new loads it was never designed to hold.
This is why pidgins and creoles are more than linguistic curiosities. They are evidence of human adaptability, born at the intersection of necessity and defiance. To dismiss them as corrupted versions of European languages is to misread the history they carry. They are independent systems with their own grammar, internal logic, and expressive range.
Question 1: According to the passage, what did the imposition of foreign languages on indigenous populations primarily affect?
A. The trade relationships between colonies and colonial powers
B. The way those populations organised knowledge and interpreted their histories
C. The speed at which indigenous populations adopted new agricultural practices
D. The formal educational curriculum in colonial territories
Question 2: The word "displacement" as used in the passage most closely means:
A. Geographical movement of people from one region to another
B. The gradual removal of indigenous languages from daily use
C. A formal government ban on local dialects
D. The physical destruction of written records in indigenous languages
Question 3: The author's attitude toward pidgins and creoles can best be described as:
A. Critical and dismissive
B. Neutral and purely descriptive
C. Respectful and analytically appreciative
D. Sympathetic but unconvinced of their value
Question 4: Which of the following best captures the central argument of the passage?
A. Colonial powers succeeded in completely eliminating indigenous languages
B. Language is a passive tool that communities can freely replace without consequences
C. The interaction between imposed and indigenous languages produced complex, meaningful linguistic systems
D. Pidgins and creoles represent a failure of communication between colonial and indigenous groups
Set Two: Lexis and Structure
Question 5: Choose the option that best completes the sentence.
Neither the manager nor the staff members ________ aware of the new directive.
A. was
B. were
C. is
D. has been
Question 6: Identify the grammatically correct sentence.
A. Everyone in the hall have submitted their forms.
B. The committee have reached their final decision unanimously.
C. Each of the students was given a separate assignment.
D. The jury are divided on their interpretation of the law.
Question 7: Select the option that correctly fills the gap.
She insisted that the matter ________ handled by the board, not the department head.
A. is
B. was
C. be
D. has been
Question 8: Choose the option that best replaces the underlined portion.
The principal, as well as the vice principal, are attending the conference.
A. are
B. were
C. is
D. have been
Question 9: Identify the sentence that contains an error.
A. The news was broadcast at six o'clock.
B. Mathematics is her favourite subject.
C. The scissors are on the table.
D. The committee has reached a decision.
Question 10: Choose the option that correctly completes the sentence.
He has lived in Calabar ________ 2018.
A. for
B. since
C. from
D. within
Set Three: Vocabulary Questions
Question 11: Choose the word closest in meaning to RETICENT.
A. Talkative
B. Reserved
C. Aggressive
D. Thoughtful
Question 12: Select the option that is most nearly opposite in meaning to BENEVOLENT.
A. Generous
B. Passive
C. Malicious
D. Ignorant
Question 13: Choose the word that best completes the sentence.
The minister's speech was so ________ that even the opposition applauded at the end.
A. verbose
B. eloquent
C. ambiguous
D. redundant
Question 14: Select the word or phrase that is closest in meaning to the underlined word.
The professor's assertion that climate change is irreversible was challenged by several colleagues.
A. Doubt
B. Claim
C. Fear
D. Warning
Question 15: Choose the correct interpretation of the idiom in the following sentence.
The new employee was thrown in at the deep end on his first day.
A. He was assigned an easy introductory task
B. He was given the most dangerous job in the office
C. He was required to handle a difficult situation without preparation
D. He was asked to demonstrate his swimming ability
Question 16: Choose the option that correctly explains the meaning of the phrasal verb in the following sentence.
The committee decided to look into the allegations before taking action.
A. Ignore
B. Investigate
C. Dismiss
D. Publicise
Set Four: Antonyms and Synonyms
Question 17: Which of the following is the closest synonym of EPHEMERAL?
A. Eternal
B. Transient
C. Vivid
D. Structural
Question 18: Choose the antonym of VERBOSE.
A. Wordy
B. Concise
C. Eloquent
D. Ambiguous
Question 19: Select the word most similar in meaning to PRUDENT.
A. Reckless
B. Arrogant
C. Cautious
D. Passive
Question 20: Which option is the antonym of OBSCURE?
A. Hidden
B. Clear
C. Dark
D. Complex
Answer Explanations and Reasoning
Question 1 – Answer: B
The passage explicitly states that colonial language imposition restructured how populations "organised knowledge, assigned social status, and interpreted their own histories." Options A, C, and D introduce topics not discussed in the passage.
Question 2 – Answer: B
The passage uses "displacement" in the context of languages gradually losing their position in daily use. It does not refer to the physical movement of people or formal bans, which makes B the most accurate contextual reading.
Question 3 – Answer: C
The author describes pidgins and creoles as evidence of human adaptability, as independent systems with their own grammar and internal logic, and argues against dismissing them. This is a position of respect and analytical appreciation.
Question 4 – Answer: C
The passage argues that colonial language contact produced complex, meaningful linguistic outcomes, not erasure or failure. Option C captures that central argument.
Question 5 – Answer: B
When "neither...nor" joins subjects, the verb agrees with the subject closer to it, which here is "staff members," a plural noun. The correct verb is "were."
Question 6 – Answer: C
"Each" is a singular pronoun and always takes a singular verb. "Each of the students was given" is correct. Options A, B, and D either pair plural subjects with singular verbs or create agreement errors in context.
Question 7 – Answer: C
"Insisted that" introduces a subjunctive clause, which requires the base form of the verb without inflection. "Be" is the correct subjunctive form here.
Question 8 – Answer: C
"As well as" is a parenthetical addition and does not make the subject plural. The principal remains the grammatical subject, and a singular subject requires a singular verb: "is."
Question 9 – Answer: C
This question is a distractor. "The scissors are on the table" is grammatically correct because "scissors" is a plural noun that takes a plural verb. All four options are actually correct, but if the exam presents this as identifying the sentence that follows a particular rule, note that scissors is always treated as plural.
Question 10 – Answer: B
"Since" is used with a specific point in time to indicate the start of a period continuing to the present. "For" is used with a duration. "He has lived in Calabar since 2018" is correct.
Question 11 – Answer: B
Reticent means unwilling to speak freely or reveal information. Reserved is the closest synonym.
Question 12 – Answer: C
Benevolent means kind and generous. Its antonym is malicious, which means intending harm.
Question 13 – Answer: B
Eloquent means fluent and persuasive in speech. A speech that moved even the opposition to applaud was clearly eloquent.
Question 14 – Answer: B
An assertion is a confident statement or claim. "Claim" is the most direct synonym in this context.
Question 15 – Answer: C
To be thrown in at the deep end means to be placed in a demanding situation without adequate preparation or a gradual introduction.
Question 16 – Answer: B
To look into something means to examine or investigate it carefully before drawing conclusions.
Question 17 – Answer: B
Ephemeral means lasting for a very short time. Transient carries the same meaning.
Question 18 – Answer: B
Verbose means using more words than necessary. Its antonym is concise, meaning brief and to the point.
Question 19 – Answer: C
Prudent means showing good judgment and care in practical matters. Cautious is its closest synonym.
Question 20 – Answer: B
Obscure means not clearly expressed or difficult to understand. Its antonym is clear.
How to Prepare for UNICAL English Post UTME
The most common mistake candidates make is treating preparation as a reading exercise. They go through past questions once, check their answers, and assume they are ready. That approach rarely translates into strong performance under timed CBT conditions. What actually works is a structured, repeated-exposure method.
Start by identifying which of the four topic areas gives you the most trouble. Most candidates struggle with either comprehension inference questions or lexis and structure, and the two require completely different remedies. For comprehension, the solution is volume: read more passages from varied sources, practise identifying the author's purpose, tone, and central argument. Editorial writing in newspapers like The Punch, Vanguard, and Thisday offers the register closest to what examiners use.
For lexis and structure, the most efficient tool is drilling. Work through WAEC and JAMB past questions on grammar specifically, noting every answer you get wrong and understanding the rule being tested. Subject-verb agreement, the subjunctive mood, and the use of correlative conjunctions like "neither...nor" and "either...or" appear consistently and reward targeted preparation.
Vocabulary building cannot be shortcut. Candidates who read broadly carry a natural advantage in this section, but candidates who study word lists drawn from WAEC, JAMB, and NECO past questions can close most of that gap within six to eight weeks of disciplined practice. Pay particular attention to formal synonyms and antonyms for common words, and to idiomatic expressions that appear regularly in standardised Nigerian examinations.
Timed practice is non-negotiable. Set a timer for 60 minutes and work through a full mock paper without pausing. Review your performance honestly, not just to confirm right answers but to understand why you chose the wrong options. That diagnostic habit is what separates candidates who plateau from those who improve consistently.